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100 Multiple Choice Questions with Answers | Class 9 Social Science Part-III | Political Science & Economics | ADRE | APSC | Assam Competitive Exams

100 MCQs for ADRE, APSC and Other Assam Competitive Exams on Political Science & Economics 

Section A: Political Parties in India

Questions 1–25

The Class IX Political Science curriculum includes the concept and need of political parties, political parties of India, the role of opposition and coalition government with its merits and demerits.

1. What is the primary purpose of a political party in a democracy?

A. To appoint judges directly
B. To contest elections and form government
C. To control the armed forces
D. To replace the constitution

Answer: B

2. A political party is primarily an organised group of people who:

A. Share political ideas and seek political power
B. Work only for economic profit
C. Manage private companies
D. Control courts

Answer: A

3. Which of the following is an essential function of a political party?

A. Contesting elections
B. Printing currency
C. Conducting judicial trials
D. Controlling the central bank

Answer: A

4. Political parties help democracy by:

A. Eliminating elections
B. Providing choices to voters
C. Ending political competition
D. Abolishing opposition

Answer: B

5. Which one is NOT a normal function of a political party?

A. Formulating policies
B. Contesting elections
C. Forming government
D. Issuing court judgments

Answer: D

6. The party that secures enough seats to form the government generally becomes the:

A. Opposition party
B. Ruling party
C. Pressure group
D. Judicial party

Answer: B

7. The main role of an opposition party is to:

A. Support every government decision
B. Critically examine government policies
C. Control the judiciary
D. Conduct elections

Answer: B

8. A strong opposition is important because it:

A. Weakens democracy permanently
B. Makes the government accountable
C. Prevents elections
D. Removes public participation

Answer: B

9. Which of the following best describes a coalition government?

A. Government formed by one party only
B. Government formed by two or more parties
C. Government formed by judges
D. Government formed by the military

Answer: B

10. A major advantage of coalition government is:

A. Wider representation of different groups
B. Elimination of political differences
C. Absence of negotiations
D. Permanent political stability in every case

Answer: A

11. A major disadvantage of coalition government may be:

A. Greater political instability
B. Complete absence of representation
C. No role for political parties
D. End of elections

Answer: A

12. The party or alliance that commands a majority in the legislature generally:

A. Forms the government
B. Controls the Supreme Court
C. Controls the Election Commission
D. Abolishes parliament

Answer: A

13. Which of the following is a national political party of India?

A. Bharatiya Janata Party
B. Assam Gana Parishad
C. Mizo National Front
D. All of the above are necessarily national parties

Answer: A

14. The Bharatiya Janata Party is commonly abbreviated as:

A. BJP
B. BJS
C. BPI
D. BIP

Answer: A

15. The Indian National Congress is commonly abbreviated as:

A. INC
B. INP
C. ICP
D. ICG

Answer: A

16. Assam Gana Parishad is primarily associated with:

A. Assam
B. Gujarat
C. Kerala
D. Punjab

Answer: A

17. A political party that operates mainly within a particular state or region is generally called a:

A. Regional party
B. Judicial party
C. Military party
D. Administrative party

Answer: A

18. Which institution conducts elections in India?

A. Election Commission of India
B. Supreme Court
C. Finance Commission
D. Union Public Service Commission

Answer: A

19. Political parties help in the formation of public opinion mainly through:

A. Campaigns and political programmes
B. Court verdicts
C. Currency printing
D. Census operations

Answer: A

20. Which of the following strengthens a democratic political system?

A. One-party monopoly without elections
B. Healthy political competition
C. Suppression of opposition
D. Cancellation of elections

Answer: B

21. Which of the following is a merit of a multi-party system?

A. Representation of diverse interests
B. Elimination of political choices
C. Permanent one-party rule
D. No possibility of coalition

Answer: A

22. In a coalition government, political parties generally need:

A. Cooperation and compromise
B. Complete isolation
C. Judicial approval for every policy
D. Military permission

Answer: A

23. Which statement about the opposition is correct?

A. It has no role in democracy
B. It checks the policies of the government
C. It controls the Election Commission
D. It appoints the President directly

Answer: B

24. The ultimate source of political authority in a democracy is:

A. The people
B. The army
C. The bureaucracy
D. Political parties alone

Answer: A

25. Which of the following best represents the relationship between political parties and elections?

A. Political parties usually contest elections to gain political power
B. Political parties avoid elections
C. Political parties are unrelated to elections
D. Political parties replace voters

Answer: A


Section B: Types of Government

Questions 26–50

The Class IX syllabus includes classification of government and parliamentary, presidential, unitary and federal forms of government, along with their merits and demerits.

26. In a parliamentary form of government, the executive is generally:

A. Responsible to the legislature
B. Independent of the legislature
C. Controlled by the judiciary
D. Appointed by the army

Answer: A

27. India follows which form of government?

A. Parliamentary
B. Presidential
C. Absolute monarchy
D. Military dictatorship

Answer: A

28. In a parliamentary system, the real executive is generally the:

A. Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
B. President alone
C. Chief Justice
D. Speaker alone

Answer: A

29. In India's parliamentary system, the constitutional head of the Union is the:

A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Speaker
D. Chief Justice

Answer: A

30. A major feature of parliamentary government is:

A. Collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers
B. Complete separation of executive and legislature
C. Hereditary executive
D. Rule by judges

Answer: A

31. One major advantage of parliamentary government is:

A. Greater executive accountability to the legislature
B. Permanent executive tenure
C. Total separation from parliament
D. Elimination of political parties

Answer: A

32. A possible disadvantage of parliamentary government is:

A. Political instability when no stable majority exists
B. Absence of legislative control
C. No public representation
D. Permanent dictatorship

Answer: A

33. Which country is a classic example of a presidential system?

A. United States of America
B. India
C. United Kingdom
D. Australia

Answer: A

34. In a presidential government, the President is generally:

A. The real executive
B. Merely a ceremonial head
C. A member of the judiciary
D. The speaker of parliament

Answer: A

35. A major characteristic of presidential government is:

A. Separation of powers
B. Collective responsibility to parliament
C. Fusion of executive and legislature
D. Parliamentary supremacy over the executive in all matters

Answer: A

36. One advantage of the presidential system is:

A. Greater stability of executive tenure
B. Guaranteed coalition government
C. Complete dependence on legislature
D. Frequent changes in executive

Answer: A

37. A possible disadvantage of the presidential system is:

A. Deadlock between executive and legislature
B. No fixed tenure
C. No executive authority
D. Lack of separation of powers

Answer: A

38. A unitary government is one in which:

A. Major powers are concentrated in the central authority
B. Powers are constitutionally divided between centre and states
C. There are two independent sovereign governments
D. States are completely sovereign

Answer: A

39. Which country is generally regarded as a unitary state?

A. United Kingdom
B. United States
C. India
D. Switzerland

Answer: A

40. One advantage of a unitary government is:

A. Administrative uniformity
B. Complete regional autonomy
C. Strong constitutional division of powers
D. Two sovereign centres of authority

Answer: A

41. A possible disadvantage of a unitary system is:

A. Excessive centralisation
B. Strong federal autonomy
C. Too much state sovereignty
D. Constitutional duplication of authority

Answer: A

42. A federal government is characterised by:

A. Constitutional division of powers between levels of government
B. Complete centralisation
C. Rule by one regional government
D. Absence of a constitution

Answer: A

43. Which of the following is generally considered a federal country?

A. United States of America
B. United Kingdom
C. Japan
D. France

Answer: A

44. India is constitutionally described as a:

A. Union of States
B. Confederation of States
C. Unitary monarchy
D. Military federation

Answer: A

45. Which is a major advantage of federal government?

A. Accommodation of regional diversity
B. Elimination of state governments
C. Complete centralisation
D. Absence of constitutional division

Answer: A

46. A possible disadvantage of federal government is:

A. Conflict between different levels of government
B. No representation of regions
C. Complete political uniformity
D. Absence of state authority

Answer: A

47. The division of powers in a federal system is usually:

A. Constitutionally defined
B. Decided only by local bodies
C. Determined by private companies
D. Controlled exclusively by courts

Answer: A

48. Which system combines the executive with legislative responsibility?

A. Parliamentary
B. Presidential
C. Absolute monarchy
D. Military rule

Answer: A

49. Which form of government generally has a fixed executive tenure independent of legislative confidence?

A. Presidential
B. Parliamentary
C. Unitary
D. Federal

Answer: A

50. Which pair is correctly matched?

A. India — Parliamentary government
B. United States — Parliamentary government
C. United Kingdom — Presidential government
D. France — Federal government

Answer: A


Section C: Basic Concepts of Economics

Questions 51–75

The Class IX Economics curriculum covers definitions of economics by Smith, Marshall and Robbins; production, consumption, services and goods; and challenges such as overpopulation, poverty, unemployment and inflation, including poverty and inequality in India and Assam.

51. Who is widely known as the father of economics?

A. Adam Smith
B. Alfred Marshall
C. Lionel Robbins
D. J. M. Keynes

Answer: A

52. Adam Smith defined economics mainly in terms of:

A. Wealth
B. Scarcity
C. Welfare
D. Population

Answer: A

53. Alfred Marshall associated economics mainly with:

A. Human welfare
B. Military power
C. Political freedom
D. Population control

Answer: A

54. Lionel Robbins defined economics in relation to:

A. Scarcity and unlimited wants
B. Wealth alone
C. Agriculture alone
D. Population alone

Answer: A

55. Which economist is associated with the scarcity definition of economics?

A. Lionel Robbins
B. Adam Smith
C. Alfred Marshall
D. David Ricardo

Answer: A

56. Human wants are generally:

A. Unlimited
B. Always limited
C. Fixed permanently
D. Equal in every society

Answer: A

57. Resources are generally:

A. Scarce in relation to wants
B. Unlimited
C. Completely free of cost
D. Identical everywhere

Answer: A

58. The economic problem mainly arises because:

A. Human wants are unlimited but resources are scarce
B. Resources are unlimited
C. Human wants do not exist
D. Production is always zero

Answer: A

59. Production means:

A. Creation of utility
B. Destruction of goods
C. Only buying products
D. Only saving money

Answer: A

60. Consumption refers to:

A. Use of goods and services to satisfy wants
B. Production of goods only
C. Exporting all products
D. Saving all income

Answer: A

61. Which of the following is a service?

A. Teaching
B. Rice
C. Bicycle
D. Book

Answer: A

62. Which of the following is a tangible good?

A. Furniture
B. Insurance
C. Teaching
D. Banking service

Answer: A

63. A service differs from a physical good mainly because it is:

A. Intangible
B. Always free
C. Always imported
D. Always produced by government

Answer: A

64. Which of the following is a factor of production?

A. Land
B. Currency note only
C. Election
D. Newspaper

Answer: A

65. Which factor of production includes human effort?

A. Labour
B. Land
C. Capital
D. Entrepreneurship only

Answer: A

66. Capital in economics refers mainly to:

A. Man-made resources used for production
B. Only money kept at home
C. Natural resources
D. Human labour

Answer: A

67. Entrepreneurship involves:

A. Organising production and bearing business risk
B. Only consuming goods
C. Printing currency
D. Conducting elections

Answer: A

68. Poverty generally refers to:

A. Inability to meet basic needs adequately
B. Ownership of large property
C. High levels of savings
D. High standard of living

Answer: A

69. The poverty line is used primarily to identify:

A. People who cannot meet a minimum level of consumption or income requirements
B. Rich business owners
C. Government employees
D. Exporters

Answer: A

70. Unemployment occurs when a person:

A. Is willing and able to work but cannot find suitable employment
B. Chooses to retire after employment
C. Receives a salary
D. Works overtime

Answer: A

71. Inflation refers to:

A. A sustained rise in the general price level
B. A fall in all prices
C. A rise in employment only
D. Growth in population alone

Answer: A

72. One likely effect of inflation is:

A. Reduction in the purchasing power of money
B. Automatic increase in real income
C. Elimination of poverty
D. Fall in all prices

Answer: A

73. Overpopulation may create pressure on:

A. Resources and public services
B. Only foreign trade
C. Only political parties
D. Only elections

Answer: A

74. Economic inequality refers to:

A. Unequal distribution of income or wealth
B. Equal income for everyone
C. Equal access to all resources
D. Absence of economic differences

Answer: A

75. Which of the following is an important economic challenge in India?

A. Poverty
B. Unemployment
C. Inflation
D. All of the above

Answer: D


Section D: Financial Literacy

Questions 76–100

The Class IX curriculum covers the definition and role of money, types and functions of money, financial literacy, income, expenses, savings, investment, financial fraud and financial planning.

76. What is money primarily used for?

A. Facilitating exchange
B. Eliminating production
C. Reducing all savings
D. Preventing trade

Answer: A

77. The most important traditional function of money is:

A. Medium of exchange
B. Political representation
C. Law making
D. Population control

Answer: A

78. Money serves as a measure of:

A. Value
B. Population
C. Political power
D. Natural resources

Answer: A

79. Money can function as a:

A. Store of value
B. Political party
C. Public institution
D. Factor of climate

Answer: A

80. Which problem of barter does money solve?

A. Double coincidence of wants
B. Inflation automatically
C. Unemployment automatically
D. Poverty automatically

Answer: A

81. Currency notes and coins are examples of:

A. Money
B. Capital goods only
C. Natural resources
D. Services

Answer: A

82. Financial literacy means:

A. Ability to understand and manage financial matters
B. Ability to read only newspapers
C. Knowledge of political history
D. Knowledge of agriculture only

Answer: A

83. Which of the following is a component of personal finance?

A. Income
B. Expenses
C. Savings
D. All of the above

Answer: D

84. Income refers to:

A. Money received from various sources
B. Money spent on goods
C. Money borrowed only
D. Money lost through fraud

Answer: A

85. An expense is:

A. Money spent to meet needs and wants
B. Money earned from employment
C. Money saved in a bank
D. Money invested for future returns

Answer: A

86. Savings are generally:

A. Income that is not spent
B. All money borrowed
C. All money invested
D. Government revenue

Answer: A

87. Investment means:

A. Putting money into assets or activities with the expectation of returns
B. Spending all income immediately
C. Keeping all money unused
D. Borrowing money without purpose

Answer: A

88. Which is generally considered a safer place for keeping savings than keeping large amounts of cash at home?

A. Bank account
B. Unsecured private locker
C. Open marketplace
D. Public road

Answer: A

89. A budget is mainly used to:

A. Plan income and expenditure
B. Increase inflation
C. Eliminate all taxes
D. Replace money

Answer: A

90. Financial planning primarily helps a person to:

A. Achieve financial goals systematically
B. Spend without limits
C. Avoid all saving
D. Increase unnecessary expenses

Answer: A

91. An emergency fund is meant primarily for:

A. Unexpected financial needs
B. Luxury spending
C. Political campaigns
D. Daily entertainment only

Answer: A

92. Which practice is financially healthy?

A. Saving regularly
B. Spending all income
C. Ignoring expenses
D. Borrowing without repayment planning

Answer: A

93. Which of the following is an example of financial fraud?

A. Phishing scam
B. Saving money in a bank
C. Making a household budget
D. Comparing prices before purchasing

Answer: A

94. A person should be especially cautious about sharing:

A. OTP, PIN and banking passwords
B. Publicly available weather information
C. Newspaper headlines
D. School timetable

Answer: A

95. OTP stands for:

A. One-Time Password
B. Online Transfer Procedure
C. Official Transaction Process
D. One Transfer Payment

Answer: A

96. Which practice can help protect a bank account from fraud?

A. Keeping banking passwords confidential
B. Sharing OTPs with strangers
C. Using unknown links
D. Giving PINs over phone calls

Answer: A

97. Financial goals should ideally be:

A. Planned according to available income and resources
B. Based only on wishes
C. Ignored until retirement
D. Made without considering expenses

Answer: A

98. Which of the following represents a good financial habit?

A. Recording expenses regularly
B. Ignoring debts
C. Spending without a budget
D. Sharing account credentials

Answer: A

99. Which statement about saving and investment is correct?

A. Saving generally provides financial reserves, while investment seeks returns on funds committed
B. Saving and investment are exactly identical
C. Investment always guarantees profit
D. Savings have no financial purpose

Answer: A

100. The main objective of financial planning is to:

A. Manage financial resources to achieve future goals
B. Maximise unnecessary expenditure
C. Avoid all forms of saving
D. Eliminate the need for budgeting

Answer: A


Answer Key — 100 MCQs

QAnsQAnsQAnsQAns
1B26A51A76A
2A27A52A77A
3A28A53A78A
4B29A54A79A
5D30A55A80A
6B31A56A81A
7B32A57A82A
8B33A58A83D
9B34A59A84A
10A35A60A85A
11A36A61A86A
12A37A62A87A
13A38A63A88A
14A39A64A89A
15A40A65A90A
16A41A66A91A
17A42A67A92A
18A43A68A93A
19A44A69A94A
20B45A70A95A
21A46A71A96A
22A47A72A97A
23B48A73A98A
24A49A74A99A
25A50A75D100A

Important Revision Topics for ADRE & APSC

Political Science

Revise the meaning and functions of political parties, need for political parties, ruling party and opposition, regional and national parties, coalition government, merits and demerits of coalition politics.

Types of Government

Focus on the differences between parliamentary and presidential government and between unitary and federal government. Questions comparing their executive-legislative relationships, stability, accountability and distribution of powers are especially useful for competitive examinations.

Economics

Remember the approaches of Adam Smith, Alfred Marshall and Lionel Robbins, along with the concepts of scarcity, wants, production, consumption, goods, services, poverty, inequality, unemployment, overpopulation and inflation.

Financial Literacy

Focus on functions of money, income, expenditure, savings, investment, budgeting, financial planning and protection against financial fraud.


Frequently Asked Questions

1. Are these MCQs suitable for ADRE?

Yes. They are designed as an exam-oriented practice set around the Class IX Political Science and Economics syllabus and can be useful for ADRE and other Assam competitive examinations.

2. Is there only one correct answer in every question?

Yes. Every question has exactly one correct answer.

3. Which Class IX Political Science chapters are covered?

The set covers Political Parties in India and Types of Government, matching the Class IX Political Science curriculum.

4. Which Economics chapters are covered?

The set covers Basic Concepts of Economics and An Introduction to Financial Literacy, matching the current Class IX curriculum.

5. Can these questions be used for Assam competitive exam preparation?

Yes. They can be used for revision for ADRE, APSC, Assam Police, TET and other objective-type examinations, although competitive-exam syllabi may extend beyond Class IX textbook content.


Source

Primary reference: Assam State School Education Board / former SEBA, Social Science Part-III: Political Science and Economics, Class IX, English Medium.

The official SEBA/ASSEB curriculum identifies the Class IX Political Science chapters as Political Parties in India and Types of Government, and the Economics chapters as Basic Concepts of Economics and An Introduction to Financial Literacy.

The official textbook list also identifies Political Science, Economics, and Social Science Part-III as the Class IX English textbook.

Final Note

These questions are practice questions based on the prescribed textbook themes, not official ADRE or APSC examination questions. Candidates should use the original textbook and the latest official examination syllabus for final preparation.

Bookmark this page for revision and share it with other Assam competitive exam aspirants.